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Answering Christianity Islam's Answers To Trinitarian Beliefs.

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Old 01.04.2011, 05:04
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The "God" title for Jesus and others in the New Testament

As clearly shown Jesus peace be upon him never claimed to be GOD or anything part of GOD. He never gave the "God" title to himself.


There are however verses in the New Testament that give Jesus the "God" title such as the following:
" 'Return home and tell how much God has done for you.' So the man went away and told all over town how much Jesus had done for him. (From the NIV Bible, Luke 8:39)"

But it is important to know that this "God" title in the New Testament was given to others beside Jesus as well. It is not the unique "The LORD" or "Jehovah" title that was given only to the Father, was given to Jesus. No where in the Bible was Jesus given such title.

Let us look where the "God" title was given to others beside Jesus in the New Testament

they claim that the word "God" with a capital "G" refers to God himself, and the word "god" with small "g" refers to humans. They also claim that they came to this type of translation from the Greek translation. Some lies and discrepancies had been inserted into the Bible through capitalizing the letter "G" when it is supposed to be a small "g" when referring to Jesus:
The following is from the work of Sheikh Ahmed Deedat; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

Let us look at John 1:1 "In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God." This is often presented from the Gospel of John to prove that Jesus was God.

There are however several problems with this claim:
By this verse it is assumed that Jesus was the "word" and since the word was God and became flesh, Jesus is God. The statement that John reproduced in his gospel however was uttered not by John but by A. Philo of Alexandria, years before Jesus or John were born. It is therefore completely unlikely that Philo was even remotely referring to Jesus.

There is also another reason for not capitalizing the "G" in John 1:1, considering the Greek of the above verse which disproves the assertion that Jesus is referred to as God in the verse. In the verse above, the first time the word God is used, the Greek is HOTHEOS (the same exact word given to Satan as God in 2 Corinthians 4:4. The NIV Bible Author wrote "god" for Satan instead of "God"), which means The God. The second time the word God is used,"....and the word was God," the word for God is TONTHEOS, which means "a god". Europeans have evolved a system of capital and small letters non-existent in Greek. The God, HOTHEOS is translated as God with a capital G, whereas Tontheos, which means A or ANY God is translated with a small g, god. In this case however, we see the unlawful translators trying to prove Jesus being God by putting capital G for both whereas it doesn't belong in the case of the "word".
Here is how 2 Corinthians 4:4 is read in the current English translation of the NIV Bible:
"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. (From the NIV Bible, 2 Corinthians 4:4)"
It should've been written as "The God of this age....." since the same Greek word was used for Jesus in describing him for being a "God".
Let us look at Psalm 82:6 "I said, 'You are "gods"; you are all sons of the Most High.' " "gods" here in Hebrew is "Elohim", which is plural of "EL". It is the same exact thing as "EL" used for Jesus in Isaiah 9:6, since "gods" is a combination of several "EL"s. And as clearly shown here, for someone to be called "god" or "God" in the Bible it wouldn't make him GOD Almighty Himself, the LORD or Jehovah. I also want to point out that ANY "Son of GOD" in the Bible is a "god" or "God" as clearly shown in Psalm 82:6.

Note:
The trinitarian liars
who translate the Bible into English play dirty tricks about capitalizing and lowering the "g" in "God" to prove their trinity lie, while they fully know that it is the same word used for ALL!

So can we trust the current English Translations then?

Absolutely not!
Given that facts above about verse John 1:1, how can we expect from an ordinary English speaking Christian who wants to spread his religion with all his heart honestly and faithfully to understand this lie of capitalizing the small "g" in John 1:1 and other verses, and not capitalizing the "g" in 2 Corinthians 4:4 for Satan for instance?

Must we allow our faith to be all based on what other authors decide to insert from their own personal views into the Bible?


To be continued





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