Makaveli1992
14.01.2013, 17:28
Jesus spoke Galilean Aramaic which we all know, and in Jerusalem they spoke Judean Aramaic and there is a difference in words and dialect.
Talya ALAHA in J.Aramaic means "son of God", in the tongue of Jesus (p )"G.Aramaic" and his disciples it means "Servant of God", both child & son can be traced back to the greek word "UIOV".
Now if we translate "UIOV" back to Galilean Aramaic we would of got Servant of God, but xtian scholars chose to translate it into Judean Aramaic.
so when he says "I am the Talya Alaha" in his tongue it means "i am the Servant of God" and not "i am the son of God" John 10:36 and 19:7 proves there was confusion.
"Talya Alaha" in J.Aramaic can also mean "Lamb of God".
So why does the Bible only focus on the Jewish Aramaic translation when Jesus (pbuh) was a Galilean Aramaic speaker?
Considering Jesus was accepted in Galilee, i presume because they understood him to be a servant of God, and rejected in Judea i assume because he was regarded as making claims to be the Son of God, and he himself was confused at this (John 10:36)
And accordance of first ever Christian Church Order "Didache" with the Koran
"The Didache" or "Teaching of the Apostles" turns Jesus out as Muslim and no Christian
“…the world-deceiver {shall appear} as a son of God;” (Didache 16:8)
Note: son of God refers to anti christ, dear christians who believe that Jesus is son of God: muslims or christians or jews?
:p016:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m9-ddOebSV4
Talya ALAHA in J.Aramaic means "son of God", in the tongue of Jesus (p )"G.Aramaic" and his disciples it means "Servant of God", both child & son can be traced back to the greek word "UIOV".
Now if we translate "UIOV" back to Galilean Aramaic we would of got Servant of God, but xtian scholars chose to translate it into Judean Aramaic.
so when he says "I am the Talya Alaha" in his tongue it means "i am the Servant of God" and not "i am the son of God" John 10:36 and 19:7 proves there was confusion.
"Talya Alaha" in J.Aramaic can also mean "Lamb of God".
So why does the Bible only focus on the Jewish Aramaic translation when Jesus (pbuh) was a Galilean Aramaic speaker?
Considering Jesus was accepted in Galilee, i presume because they understood him to be a servant of God, and rejected in Judea i assume because he was regarded as making claims to be the Son of God, and he himself was confused at this (John 10:36)
And accordance of first ever Christian Church Order "Didache" with the Koran
"The Didache" or "Teaching of the Apostles" turns Jesus out as Muslim and no Christian
“…the world-deceiver {shall appear} as a son of God;” (Didache 16:8)
Note: son of God refers to anti christ, dear christians who believe that Jesus is son of God: muslims or christians or jews?
:p016:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m9-ddOebSV4